Tuesday 25 May 2021

Ccna Cyber Ops Chapter 9 Exam Answers


  • Port security gives an administrator the ability to manually specify what MAC addresses should be seen on given switch ports. It provides a method for limiting the number of MAC addresses that can be dynamically learned over a switch port. Which two...
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  • Which spanning-tree enhancement prevents the spanning-tree topology from changing by blocking a port that receives a superior BPDU? The role of the Cisco NAC Manager is to define the security policies of user access and endpoint security policies....
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  • What is the purpose of the DH algorithm? To provide non-repudiation support To support email data confidentiality To encrypt data traffic after a VPN is established To generate a shared secret between two hosts that have not communicated before D. DH is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that allows two computers togenerate an identical shared secret, without having communicated before.
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  • Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data? Authentication Confidentiality Integrity C. When data is encrypted, it is scrambled to keep the data private and confidential so that only authorized recipients can read the message. A hash function is another way of providing confidentiality. Which statement describes the use of hashing? Hashing can be used to prevent both accidental and deliberate changes. Hashing can be used to detect both accidental and deliberate changes. Hashing can be used to detect accidental changes, but does not protect against deliberate changes. Hashing can be used to protect against deliberate changes, but does not detect accidental changes. Hashing can be used to detect accidental changes only. It is possible for an attacker to intercept a message, change it, recalculate the hash, and append it to the message.
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  • The receiving device would validate the appended hash. The standard defines the format of a digital certificate. Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI? Choose two. A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes. A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate. The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate. A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email. A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies. A digital certificate class is identified by a number. The higher the number, the more trusted the certificate. The classes include the following: Class 0 is for testing purposes in which no checks have been performed.
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  • The CA public key verifies all the certificates issued by the CA. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in establishing an IPsec VPN?
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  • Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches: signature-based — by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files heuristics-based — by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware behavior-based — through analysis of suspicious activities Which regulatory compliance regulation sets requirements for all U. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act GLBA — established that financial institutions must ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act HIPAA — requires that all patient personally identifiable healthcare information be stored, maintained, and transmitted in ways that ensure patient privacy and confidentiality.
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  • Which statement describes the term attack surface? It is the total sum of vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker. It is the group of hosts that experiences the same attack. It is the network interface where attacks originate. It is the total number of attacks toward an organization within a day. An attack surface is the total sum of the vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker. The attack surface can consist of open ports on servers or hosts, software that runs on Internet-facing servers, wireless network protocols, and even users. Which step in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle determines a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality, vulnerability threat, and asset classification? Document a security plan, monitor suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities. Remediate — prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities in order of risk Verify — verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up audits When a network baseline is being established for an organization, which network profile element indicates the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination?
    Link: https://jmu.uloop.com/professors/view.php/299171/Steven-Keffer
  • We will update answers for you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website. What contains information on how hard drive partitions are organized? The master boot record MBR contains a small program that is responsible for locating and loading the operating system. The BIOS executes this code and the operating system starts to load. Which net command is used on a Windows PC to establish a connection to a shared directory on a remote server? The net command is a very important command in Windows. Some common net commands include the following: net accounts: Sets password and logon requirements for users net session: Lists or disconnects sessions between a computer and other computers on the network net share: Creates, removes, or manages shared resourcesnet start: Starts a network service or lists running network services net stop: Stops a network service net use: Connects, disconnects, and displays information about shared network resources net view: Shows a list of computers and network devices on the network 3.
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  • Which type of startup must be selected for a service that should run each time the computer is booted? An automatic startup will start the service automatically when the PC starts. The manual startup process will occur when the application is launched by a user. There is no boot, start, or startup service type that can be configured. A user creates a file with a. What type of file is it? The types of commands that PowerShell can execute include the following: Cmdlets: Perform an action and return an output or object to the next command that will be executed PowerShell scripts: Files with a.
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  • When a user makes changes to the settings of a Windows system, where are these changes stored? The registry contains information about applications, users, hardware, network settings, and file types. The registry also contains a unique section for every user, which contains the settings configured by that particular user. Which Windows version was the first to introduce a bit Windows operating system? There are more than 20 releases and versions of the Windows operating system. The Windows XP release introduced bit processing to Windows computing. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network.
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  • The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping? The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address. The default gateway is not operational. Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests. If the ping from one host to another host on a remote network is successful, this indicates that the default gateway is operational. In this scenario, if a ping from one host to the default gateway failed, it is possible that some security features are applied to the router interface, preventing it from responding to ping requests.
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